• Spiralvortexisalie@lemmy.world
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    6 months ago

    Can I ask you why you believe that? I feel that conclusion can only be made with many assumptions, especially as even republicans do not like Trump, they literally just hate Joe more (Seriously Bidenomics is a slur in most of the heartland Ive interacted with).

    • qaz@lemmy.worldM
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      6 months ago

      This is my reasoning:

      1. America has first-past-the-post voting
      2. That means the party with the most votes wins it all
      3. The republican (41.7%) and democrat party poll high, nothing comes close (40.4%) (next up is Kennedy at 9.1%) and the last candidate that wasn’t from either party was George Washington (1789 - 1797), therefore a vote for another party is essentially meaningless.
      4. Therefore, either the Republican or Democratic Party win
      5. The candidates for both parties have been determined at this point and are highly unlikely to change unless any of them die, therefore either Trump or Biden wins.
      6. Therefore, all actions come down to 2 things: Increase the chance of Biden winning instead of Trump or don’t

      In my opinion, the only way to avoid each election coming down to damage control is to get rid of FPTP voting.

      EDIT: The last candidate that wasn’t from either party was not George Washington as [email protected] pointed out. It was Millard Fillmore (1850 - 1853).

      • lemonmelon@lemmy.world
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        6 months ago
        1. re: “last candidate … George Washington”

        I’m not entirely sure what point you’re making, as there have been multiple other parties whose candidates were elected to the presidency, including the Federalists, the Whigs, and the Democratic-Republicans. Theodore Roosevelt received the second-most votes in the 1912 election as a third-party candidate for the Progressive (Bull Moose) party.