• cenarius871@sh.itjust.worksOP
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    7 months ago

    why did it spread to south korea only in 1960? and not earlier? Why has it still not spread to africa and india today?

    • crawancon@lemm.ee
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      7 months ago

      I think there is a lot more going on in those regions than I can account for their lack of industrialism. short answer is I don’t know.

      longer response is the whole opportunities, resource triad thing can be broken by cultural and other barriers. let’s use Amish folks as that example.

      the Koreas had a slightly isolationist time during the broader revolutions and since have different outside influences so they have different periods of growth.